Monday, 10 October 2016

ITIL EXAMS TEST PART 3 WITH ANSWERS


                   ITIL EXAM TEST PART 3 WITH ANSWERS

1. Which processes are responsible for the regular review of underpinning contracts?
A. Supplier management and service level management
B. Supplier management and change management
C. Availability management and service level management
D. Supplier management and availability management


ANSWER. A. Supplier management and service level management


2. Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. Change management
C. Incident management
D. Service asset and configuration management


ANSWER. D. Service asset and configuration management


3. Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?
A. Co-ordinate
B. Plan
C. Do
D. Act


ANSWER. A. Co-ordinate


4. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?
A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each party
B. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organization
C. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplier
D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer


ANSWER. D. An agreement between the service provider and their customer


5. Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle?
1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is
2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider
3. Defining how value is created

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All of the above


ANSWER. D. All of the above



6. In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?
1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors
2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models

A. Both of the above
B. Neither of the above
C. Option 1 only
D. Option 2 only


ANSWER. A. Both of the above


7. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?
A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they use
B. An agreement that covers one service for a single customer
C. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structure
D. An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service


ANSWER. D. An agreement that covers one service for all customers of that service


8. Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?
A. Providing physical security for staff at data centers and other buildings
B. Managing access to computer rooms and other secure locations
C. Managing access to the service desk
D. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services


ANSWER. D. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services


9. Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management
B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management
C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfillment, and event management
D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfillment, access management, and event management


ANSWER. A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfillment, and access management


10. Which of the following activities are performed by a desk?
1. Logging details of incidents and service requests
2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3. Restoring service
4. Implementing all standard changes

A. All of the above
B. 1,2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only


ANSWER. B. 1,2 and 3 only


11. Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?
A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require
B. Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized
C. Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and tracked
D. To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail


ANSWER. A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require


12. From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets?
A The customer
B. The user
C. The supplier
D. The administrator


ANSWER. A The customer


13. What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?
A. Service support
B. Incident management
C. Resource management
D. Service management


ANSWER. D. Service management


14. What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?
A. Strategic service
B. Delivered service
C. External service
D. Internal service


ANSWER. D. Internal service


15. Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?
A. Technology
B. Standards
C. Academic research
D. Internal experience


ANSWER. A. Technology


16. Which of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?
A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service
B. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they use
C. An SLA that covers all customers for all services
D. An SLA for a service with no customers


ANSWER. A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that service


17. Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the business?
A. Service level management
B. Financial management
C. Demand management
D. Risk management


ANSWER. B. Financial management


18. Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase ‘Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based on a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision’?
A. Where are we now?
B. Where do we want to be?
C. How do we get there?
D. Did we get there?


ANSWER. B. Where do we want to be?


19. Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?
A. Service operation
B. Service transition
C. Service strategy
D. Continual service improvement


ANSWER. D. Continual service improvement


20. Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?

A. The change management process owner
B. The change advisory board (CAB)
C. The service owner
D. The continual service improvement manager

ANSWER. A. The change management process owner


21. Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?
1. Service pipeline
2. Service knowledge management system (SKMS)
3. Service catalogue

A. 1 and 3 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. All of the above



ANSWER. A. 1 and 3 only


22. Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?
A. Change management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Supplier management
D. Release and deployment management


ANSWER. C. Supplier management


23. Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service desk
C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested


ANSWER. B. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service desk



24. Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?
1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome

A. 1 only
B. Neither of the above
C. 2 only
D. Both of the above


ANSWER. D. Both of the above


25. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

A. Both of the above
B. 2 only
C. Neither of the above
D. 1 only


ANSWER. D. 1 only


26. Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?
A. Process practitioner
B. Service manager
C. Process manager
D. Change manager


ANSWER. C. Process manager


27. Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?
1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance
2. Identifying improvement opportunities
3. Appointing people to required roles

A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only


ANSWER. A. All of the above


28. Which process has the following objective, ‘Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests’?
A. Service transition planning and support
B. Design coordination
C. Service level management
D. Change management


ANSWER. B. Design coordination


29. Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?
A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the lifecycle
B. Ensuring all service designs have availability designed into them
C. Designing of all the links between every service design process and all other processes in the service lifecycle
D. Control of all supplier relationships from design right through to the production environment


ANSWER. A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the lifecycle


30. Which process would maintain policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processes?
A. Change management
B. Capacity management
C. Service transition planning and support
D. Release management


ANSWER. C. Service transition planning and support



31. Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?
A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require
B. Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorized
C. Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and tracked
D. To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail

ANSWER. A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they require
32.Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?
A. A capacity database
B. A definitive media library
C. A request for change
D. A known error database

ANSWER. D. A known error database

33. Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?

A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it serves
B. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one place
C. The desk provides 24 hour global support
D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization
ANSWER. D. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization

34. What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?

A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
ANSWER. C. Informational, warning, exception

35. Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?
A. Service level management
B. Problem management
C. Change management
D. Event management

ANSWER. B. Problem management


36. Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained?
A. Categorization
B. Detection
C. Prioritization
D. Escalation

ANSWER. A. Categorization

37. Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways?
A. Planning how to recover the cost of a change
B. Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessful
C. Planning how to compensate a user for a failed change
D. Planning how to advise the change requestor of a failed change

ANSWER. B. Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessful

38. Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?
A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately available
B. Only incidents reported to the service desk can be logged
C. All incidents must be fully logged
D. The service desk decide which incidents to log

ANSWER. C. All incidents must be fully logged

39. Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?
1. Capacity management
2. Request fulfillment
3. Demand management
4. Incident management

A. All of the above
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 2 only

ANSWER. C. 2 and 4 only

40. Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?
1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources
2. Reduced cost to design new services
3. Result in higher volume of successful changes

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. None of the above


ANSWER. C. 1 and 3 only

Saturday, 8 October 2016

ITIL EXAMS PART 2 WITH ANSWERS

                      ITIL EXAMS PART 2 WITH ANSWERS




1.  Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration management?
A. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
B. Describes the topography of the hardware
C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release


ANSWER. A. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services



2. Which of the following are sources of best practice?
1. Academic research
2. Internal experience
3. Industry practices

A. All of the above
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only


ANSWER. A. All of the above

3. Which of these should a change model include?
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures

A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only


ANSWER. C. 1, 2 and 3 only


4. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?
A. Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented
B. Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happening
C. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible
D. Eliminating recurring incidents


ANSWER. C. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible


5. Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?
1. A configuration item (CI) can exits as part of any numbers other CIs at the same time

2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert.
A. 2 only
B. 1 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above


ANSWER. C. Both of the above



6. Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?

1. Enabling
2. Core
3. Enhancing
4. Computer

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1,2 and 3 only


ANSWER. D. 1,2 and 3 only


7. In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?
A. The service level agreement (SLA)
B. The IT service plan
C. The availability management information system
D. The problem record


ANSWER. D. The problem record


8. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It structure an organization
B. It delivers specific results
C. It responds to specific events
D. It is measureable


ANSWER. A. It structure an organization 

9. Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transaction stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To ensure that a service managed and operated accordance with constraints specified during design
B. To plan the resources required to manage a release
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To design and develop capabilities for service management


ANSWER. D. To design and develop capabilities for service management


10. Which of the following BEST describes technical management?
A. A function responsibilities for facilities management and building control systems
B. A function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to customers
C. Senior managers responsibilities for all staff within the technical support function
D. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT infrastructure


ANSWER. D. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT infrastructure


11. Which of the following is not a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL?
A Virtual
B. Outsourced
C. Centralized
D. Local


ANSWER. B. Outsourced


12. What is the primary focus of the business management?
A. Management, control and prediction of the performance, utilization and capacity of individual elements of IT technology
B. Review of all capacity supplier agreements and underpinning contracts with supplier management
C. Management, control and prediction of the end-to-end performance and capacity of the live, operational IT services
D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion


ANSWER. D. Future business requirements for IT services are quantified, designed, planned and implemented in a timely fashion


13. Which process has the purpose to ensure that, by managing the risks could seriously affect IT services, the IT service provider can always provide minimum agreed business-related service levels?
A. IT service continuity management
B. Change management
C. Financial management for IT services
D. Service catalog management


ANSWER. A. IT service continuity management


14. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?
A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
D. Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting


ANSWER. A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change


15. Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below acceptable limits?
A. Service asset and configuration management
B. Problem management
C. Service catalogue management
D. Event management


ANSWER. D. Event management


16. Which one of the following do major incidents require?
A. Longer timescales
B. Less urgency
C. Separate procedures
D. Less documentation


ANSWER. C. Separate procedures


17. What is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers


ANSWER. D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers


18. In terms of adding value to the business, which one of the following describes service operation s contribution?
A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validated
B. Service value is visible to customers
C. Service value is modeled
D. Measures for optimization are identified



ANSWER. B. Service value is visible to customers


19. Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?
A. Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI)
B. Resources and capabilities
C. Service requirements and warranty
D. Customer and user satisfaction


ANSWER. B. Resources and capabilities


20. Which one of the following statements BEST describes a definitive media library (DML)?
A. A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored and protected
C. A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all software and back-ups are stored and protected


ANSWER. B. A secure library where definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items (CIs) are stored and protected



21. Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?
A. Third-party contracts
B. Service level agreements (SLAs)
C. The service portfolio
D. Operational level agreements (OLAs)


ANSWER. A. Third-party contracts


22. Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during design
B. To design and develop capabilities for service management
C. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about services
D. To plan the resources required to manage a release


ANSWER. B. To design and develop capabilities for service management



23. Which of the following are managed by facilities management?
1. Hardware within a data centre or computer room
2. Applications
3. Power and cooling equipment
4. Recovery sites

A. 1,3 and 4 only
B. All of the above
C. 1,2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only


ANSWER. A. 1,3 and 4 only



24. Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?
A. Service operation
B. Service transition
C. Continual service improvement
D. Service design


ANSWER. D. Service design


25. Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?
1. Design and modeling
2. Reporting
3. Pattern recognition and analysis
4. Detection and monitoring

A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. All of the above


ANSWER. D. All of the above


26. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?
A. The availability of a service or component
B. The level of risk that affects a service or process
C. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing
D. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order


ANSWER. C. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failing


27. Which one of the following is NOT the responsibility of service catalogue management?
A. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained
C. Ensuring that information in the service catalogue is consistent with information in the service portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the service catalogue


ANSWER. B. Ensuring that service level agreements are maintained


28. Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?
A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
B. To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
C. To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimized
D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders


ANSWER. D. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders


29. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The configuration management system is part of the known error database
B. The service knowledge management system is part of the configuration management system
C. The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system
D. The configuration management system is part of the configuration management database


ANSWER. C. The configuration management system is part of the service knowledge management system



30. Implementation of IT1L service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps.” What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, problems
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, perspective, partners


ANSWER. C. People, process, products, partners




31. Which of the following should IT service continuity strategy be based on?
1. Design of the service metrics
2. Business continuity strategy

3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
4. Risk assessment

A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only


ANSWER. C. 2, 3 and 4 only


32. What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?
A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization
B. An agreement between the service provider and an external organization
C. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basis
D. A document that describes business services to operational staff


ANSWER. A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organization


33. Which one of the following generates demand for services?
A. Patterns of business activity (PBA)
B. Infrastructure trends
C. Cost of providing support
D. Service level agreements (SLA)


ANSWER. A. Patterns of business activity (PBA)


34. Which one of the following is an objective of service transition?
A. To negotiate service levels for new services
B. To ensure that service changes create the expected business value
C. To minimize the impact of service outages on day-to-day business activities
D. To plan and manage entries in the service catalogue


ANSWER. B. To ensure that service changes create the expected business value


35. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?
A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT service
D. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem


ANSWER. A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT service



36. Which one of the following is the BEST description of the purpose of the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the service lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT services
C. To design and build processes which will meet business needs
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers


ANSWER. D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users and customers



37. Which one of the following is the BEST description of a major incident?
A. An incident which is so complex that it requires root cause analysis before a workaround can be found
B. An incident which requires a large number of people to resolve
C. An incident logged by a senior manager
D. An incident which has a high priority or a high impact on the business


ANSWER. D. An incident which has a high priority or a high impact on the business


38. Which of the following availability management activities is/are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?
1. Monitoring system availability
2. Designing availability into a proposed solution

A. None of the above
B. Both of the above
C. 2 only
D. 1 only


ANSWER. C. 2 only



39. Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?
A. Intrusion detection
B. Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data centre
C. Recording service desk staff absence
D. Monitoring the status of configuration items


ANSWER. C. Recording service desk staff absence


40. The multi-level SLA1 is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA?
A. Configuration level
B. Service level
C. Corporate level
D. Customer level


ANSWER. A. Configuration level





ITIL EXAMS TEST PART 1 WITH ANSWERS

                                 ITIL EXAMS TEST 1 WITH ANSWERS



1. What does the continual service improvement (CSI) approach enable a  business to achieve?
A. It keeps the communication going within the business
B. It helps the business in making decisions on improvement initiatives
C. It helps the stakeholders understand their customers
D. It dictates the way the business interacts with external suppliers


ANSWER.
B. It helps the business in making decisions on improvement initiatives


2. Which of the following BEST describes an operational level agreement (OLA)?
A. It contains targets that underpin those within an SLA to ensure that targets will not be breached by failure of the supporting activity.
B. It is an agreement between a supplier and another part of the same organization that assists with the provision of services.
C. It is a written agreement between a supplier and the IT customer(s), defining the key service targets and responsibilities of both parties.
D. It is a legally binding contract outlining services delivered to an IT service provider that underpin a service that provider delivers to its customers.


ANSWER.
B. It is an agreement between a supplier and another part of the same organization that assists with the provision of services.


3. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the operations management function?
A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT operations failures that occur
B. Delivering operational improvements to achieve reduced costs
C. Management of the definitive media library (DML)
D. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities


ANSWER
C. Management of the definitive media library (DML)


4. What is the BEST description of an external customer?
A. Someone who works in the same organization but in a different business unit to the service provider
B. Anyone who gets charged for the delivered services
C. Customers who are not part of the same organization as the service provider
D. Customers for whom the cost of the service is the primary driver


ANSWER
C. Customers who are not part of the same organization as the service provider


5. How is a service delivered between departments of the same organization classified?
A. Internal service
B. External service
C. Mission critical service
D. Organizational service

ANSWER
    A.    Internal service



6. What BEST describes the value of service transition to the business?
A. It supports the creation of a catalogue of services
B. It leads to gradual and continual improvement in service quality
C. It provides quick and effective access to standard services
D. It results in higher volumes of successful change


ANSWER
D. It results in higher volumes of successful change


7. Which is an objective of access management?
A. To efficiently respond to requests for granting access to services
B. To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT service
C. To assist with general information, complaints or comments
D. To minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented


ANSWER
   A.   To efficiently respond to requests for granting access to services


8. What should be documented as part of every process?
A. The process owner, process policy and set of process activities
B. The service owner, service level agreement and set of process procedures
C. The policy owner, operational level agreement and set of process steps
D. The service manager, service contract and set of work instructions


ANSWER
     A.   The process owner, process policy and set of process activities


9. What BEST defines serviceability?
A. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order
B. How long a service or component can perform its agreed function without failure
C. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of its contract
D. The part of the business process that is critical to providing the service


ANSWER
C. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of its contract


10. In service design, which term describes services, technologies and tools?
A. People
B. Partners
C. Products
D. Processes


ANSWER
C   Products


11. What should a release policy include?
A. Roles and responsibilities across all the service transition processes
B. Roles and responsibilities for updating the configuration management database (CMDB)
C. Criteria and authorization to exit early life support and handover to the service operation function
D. How request for changes (RFCs) are approved for software releases in the IT production environment


ANSWER.   C. Criteria and authorization to exit early life support and handover to the service operation function


12. Which process is responsible to provide and maintain accurate information on all services that are being transitioned or have been transitioned to the live environment?
A. Service portfolio management
B. Service level management
C. Service catalogue management
D. Service capacity management


ANSWER. C. Service catalogue management


13. What BEST describes an important principle of communication in service operation?
A. It is efficient, effective and economical for all IT services
B. It has an intended purpose or a resultant action
C. It focuses on creating a relationship between processes and products
D. It has responsibility for creating policies


ANSWER. B. It has an intended purpose or a resultant action


14. What is an objective of event management?
A. To maintain user satisfaction with the quality of IT services
B. To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT service
C. To provide a channel for users to receive standard services that they are expecting
D. To minimize the impact of incidents due to service failures that cannot be prevented


ANSWER. B. To detect changes of state that have significance for management of an IT service



15. Where are the details of core and enhancing services provided?
A. The definitive media library
B. The configuration management system
C. The service portfolio
D. The service catalogue


ANSWER. D. The service catalogue


16. Which is used to assess business demand for services?
A. Premium business assets
B. Patterns of business activity
C. Provider business assets
D. Predicted business architecture

ANSWER. B. Patterns of business activity


17. What BEST describes the value of service operation to the business?
A. It supports the creation of a portfolio of quantified services
B. It ensures IT services are continuously aligned to business requirements
C. It defines the control of service assets and configurations
D. It reduces the duration and frequency of service outages 


ANSWER. C. It defines the control of service assets and configurations


18. Which process analyses services that are no longer viable and when they should be retired?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Service level management
D. Business relationship management


ANSWER. B. Service portfolio management


19. What BEST defines roles and responsibilities in relation to process and activities?
A. Human resource model
B. Configuration baseline
C. Service model
D. RACI matrix


ANSWER. D. RACI matrix


20. Which one of the following answers shows two of the activities relating to tools that will take place during the transition stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Testing the tool and training process managers on using the process
B. Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the tools
C. Training tool administrators how to manage tools and monitoring tool performance in operational environment
D. Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the process


ANSWER. A. Testing the tool and training process managers on using the process
                    D. Development or purchase of tools and deployment of the process


21. Which three types of metric support Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities?
A. Technology metrics, service desk metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics
B. Process metrics, software metrics and financial metrics
C. Technology metrics, process metrics and service metrics
D. Service metrics, technology metrics and Key Performance Indicator (KPI) metrics


ANSWER. C. Technology metrics, process metrics and service metrics


22. Which of the following are CORRECT Service Design Aspects?
1. Service Solutions for new or changed services
2. Management policies and guidelines
3. Business requirements technology and management architectures
4. Process requirements technology and management architectures

A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 2


ANSWER. A. 1 and 4


23. Which stage of the service lifecycle includes the scope of service retirement and transfer of services between service providers?
A. Service design
B. Service level management
C. Service operation
D. Service transition


ANSWER. A. Service design


24. What is the BEST definition of a definitive media library?
A.It is a secure library in which all definitive authorized versions of all media configuration items are stored and protected
B.It is a structured document with definitive information regarding all live IT services, including those available for deployment.
C.It is a secure library in which the latest versions of authorized software items are stored and protected.
D. It is a set of tools and databases that is used to manage knowledge, information and data.


ANSWER. C.It is a secure library in which the latest versions of authorized software items are stored and protected.


25. Which is an objective of the design coordination process?
A. To document the initial structure and relationship between services and customers
B. To ensure that all changes are assessed for their impact on service designs
C. To ensure service design packages are handed over to service transition

D. To handover new service level requirements to the service level management process

ANSWER. C. To ensure service design packages are handed over to service transition


26. What BEST defines IT service management?

A. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs
B. The customer of an IT service provider who defines and agrees the service targets
C. An organization supplying services to only external customers
D. The resources that are utilized to provide value to customers through services


ANSWER. A. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs


27. Which role is responsible for sponsoring, designing and change managing a process and its metrics?
A. The service owner
B. The process manager
C. The process practitioner
D. The process owner


ANSWER. D. The process owner


28. What are the two MAJOR activities in problem management?
A. Reactive and technical
B. Proactive and reactive
C. Technical and service
D. Resource and proactive


ANSWER. B. Proactive and reactive


29. Which is the CORRECT activity to carry out the “How do we get there” phase of the Continual Service improvement approach?
A. Policy and governance review
B. Baseline assessments
C. Service and process improvement
D. Measurable targets


ANSWER. C. Service and process improvement


30. An incident is proving difficult to resolve. A technician informs their manager that more resource is needed to restore the service. What has taken place?
A. A service level escalation
B. A functional escalation
C. An incident resolution
D. A hierarchic escalation


ANSWER. B. A functional escalation


31. Which statement about service review meetings is FALSE?
A. Progress and success of the service improvement program (SIP) should be reviewed
B. Meetings should be held on a regular basis to review service achievement
C. Issues for the upcoming period should be discussed at the meetings
D. Actions from service review meetings should only be assigned to the service provider


ANSWER. D. Actions from service review meetings should only be assigned to the service provider


32. What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider’s customers?
A. Service catalogue management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Business relationship management
D. Service desk


ANSWER. C. Business relationship management


33. Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?
A. To ensure the impact of changes are understood
B. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users
C. To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
D. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated


ANSWER. B. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users


34. What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?
A. Strategic customers
B. Internal customers
C. Valued customers
D. External customers


ANSWER. B. Internal customers


35. Access management is closely related to which other process?
A. Information security management
B. 3rd line support
C. Capacity management
D. Change management

ANSWER. A. Information security management



36. In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management?
A. Service design
B. Service strategy
C. Service transition
D. Service operation


ANSWER. A. Service design



37. Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?
A. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service
B. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoided
C. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiency
D. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM) activities


ANSWER. D. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM) activities


38. A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?
A. Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so
B. No: the Known Error should be created before the problem is logged
C. No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raised
D. No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service


ANSWER. A. Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do so



39. Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?
1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful
2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment
3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above


ANSWER. D. All of the above


40. Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?
1. Things that were done correctly
2. Things that were done incorrectly
3. How to prevent recurrence
4. What could be done better in the future

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above


ANSWER. D. All of the above